Re: [tied] Re: Short and long vowels; the explanation of Old Indian

On Sun, 17 Jul 2005 15:05:31 -0500, Patrick Ryan
<proto-language@...> wrote:

>To judge by known Indo-Iranian processes, the phonetic realization of <a:> would have had to have been /ay/, the zero-grade of which would unforcedly have been /i/, <i>.
>
>If pre-PIE *H were phonetically realized as /ç/ in PIE, for Indo-Iranian, a change to /y/ would involve simple voicing.

BTW you're also contradicting yourself. A few hours ago you
said:

> As a consequence, the result of shortening *dhe:- cannot involve a 'laryngeal'

Now you want to use the laryngeal to explain I-I /i/.

The development of /&/ (schwa, into which all vocalized
laryngeals had merged outside Greek) to /i/ in Indo-Iranian
is unremarkable. The same thing happened again in Middle
Indo-Aryan with the syllabic resonant /r./ > /r&/ > /ri/ (as
in <kr.s.nah.> => <kris.n.a>).

=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv@...