From: Miguel Carrasquer
> ----- Original Message -----The problem is that your ?*dhe-tó-, ?*sta-tó- and ?*do-tó-
> From: pielewe<mailto:wrvermeer@...>
> --- In firstname.lastname@example.org<mailto:email@example.com>, "Patrick Ryan" <proto-language@...<mailto:proto-language@...>...>
> > *dhe-tó- sta-tó- *do-tó can be reconstructed to justify the
> actual Greek forms.
> > The 'laryngeals' are unnecessary in zero-grade, and contribute no
> useful information.
> Yes, but you can't explain the Vedic forms on the basis of *dhe-tó-
> sta-tó- and *do-tó, so the laryngeals must have been present at the
> latest common stage underlying Greek and Vedic.
> Unless I have misunderstood something really basic.
> Well, let's try.
> for *dhe:-, the Vedic participle is dhitá
> for *sta:-, the Vedic participle is sthitá
> for *do:-, the Vedic participle is da:tá but Epic di-tá
> I am not sure I see the problem.