Re: [tied] 'coke' in Polish?

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Piotr Gasiorowski <gpiotr@...>
wrote:

> tgpedersen wrote:
>
> > How is eg. 'coke' (as in 'cocaine'; assuming it's a recent

loanword in

> > Polish) inflected in all cases in Polish? Does the -k- alternate

(eg.

> > with -c- ?) where it would in native Polish words?
>
> Yes, the dative/locative is <koce> and can't be anything else.

This

> "morphological palatalisation" applies only across a morphological
> boundary, i.e. in a derived environment, not morpheme-internally.

In

> other words, the sequences /ke/ and /ki/ are fully acceptable in

Polish

> and the k ~ c alternation is a morphophonological _rule_, not a
> phonological _process_.

In other words, it's a dead morphological process. Early enough
loans would have participated in it.

>Loans like <keson>, <kepi> or <kibutz> can't be
> affected.

Ah, I am vindicated! ;-) Do you think you could you come up with a
recent loan in -k ?



Torsten