From: Piotr Gasiorowski
Message: 38897
Date: 2005-06-23
> In addition, grurë is obviously related to *g'r.h2no- the"Related to" doesn't mean "descended from". In fact, <grurë> is most
> semantism fit 100%.
> Also we talked here, about a 'sonorant context' so a 'largeBecause a syllabic liquid or nasal functions like a vowel, i.e. it
> context'
> In addition the sonorants don't appear in all cases 'immediately
> after' g^/k^ so I don't see why this effect was influenced different
> by the "syllabic sonorants"?
> As result, I doubt that a 'syllabic sonorant context' has had aHave you ever studied phonetics? If you had, you'd have no such doubts,
> different effect.
> In this conditions my question is :It _is_ rather well known, so why the ironic inverted commas?
>
> Do you know a second example than the 'well known' *g^Hr.zdo-
> 'cereal, barley' > <drithë>?
> Because if this is the single example that we have here...There must be more of them; I'll think of some.
> 1. Sorry but I didn't understand what is 'special' regarding:The position or *r. after the loss of the laryngeal. Syllabic consonants
> *gWr.- > g(w)urë (for me is a good example for r. > ur)
> similar with wl.k- > *(w)ulk-
> 2. There wasn't r.: l.: in PIE (it's true also that some scholarsYes, before the advent of the laryngeal theory. They no longer do.
> have proposed them)
> but it was a lenghtening effect at least in EarlyIt's a mere stipulation, falsified by the comparative evidence. Compare
> PAlb when we have had r.<H> l.<H> contexts before to have any other
> outputs of r. l.