Re: [tied] But where does *-mi come from?

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "P&G" <G&P@...> wrote:

> >I suspected the mi-conjugation has its origin in a dependent
> >construction, in other words its endings are those of participles or
> >verbal nouns. A mi-conjugation finite form (-nt) where one expects
> >an infinitive (or verbal noun) strengthens my suspicion. This is the
> >old idea that the -nt- of the 3rd pl. is identical to the -nt- of
> >the present participle (also a type of verbal noun).
>
> I might agree with your conclusion,but I don't think Latin facio +

clause

> can be used to support it. Facio + subjunctive - a kind of

paratactic

> construction - is the norm. Facio + inifinitive is rare and late.
>

Ernout & Meillet doesn't mention it being late. Also the question is
really the age of 'facio:' + verbal noun. Judging from 'cale facio:'
and 'a:re facio:' it's old.


Torsten