Re: [tied] But where does *-mi come from?

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "P&G" <G&P@...> wrote:

> > >Infinitives were once verbal nouns.
> >That turns infinitive + object constructions into verbal noun +
> >object constructions. If the -tó- participle in the ablative
> >absolute was once a verbal noun in -t-, I have brought the two
> >constructions on a common formula
>
> Alas, infinitives are no part of PIE. They are developed

independently in

> each branch from verbal nouns. Therefore we cannot project

anything about

> infinitives back to PIE. If you are only saying that verbal

nouns take

> noun endings, there's nothing new.
>
> Pardon me if I am simply failing to understand. Try to be patient

with me.

>

I was saying that infinitives have their origin in verbal nouns, and
you seem to have grasped that. Both Latin ablative absolute and
Vedic infinitive constructions are noun + verbal noun constructions.


Torsten