Re: [tied] How old is the machismo in Romance languages

> Using the masculine gender for a compound subject which has,
> at least, one male component
> is one of the most representative manifestations
> from this "embedded" and historical machismo.

This is a nonsense.
No Indoeuropean language has really the masculine gender;
what is called the masculine gender is really the common gender.
There is the -H2 suffix marking feminine gender
but no corresponding suffix to mark masculine gender.
So it is the feminine gender which is privileged by the grammar.

P.A.