From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 37356
Date: 2005-04-25
>Sure. *k occurs in the PIE diminutive suffix *-(i)ko-, so
>
>> >And, in connection with the vowel-glides, do you assume as I do,
>that PIE *k^- is a result of pre-PIE *ke?
>>
>> That would be *ki in my scheme. No. The PIE *k^-series is
>> many times more frequent than the *k-series, which leads me
>> to believe that it stands for unmarked /k/ (/g/, /gh/).
>> That would make the *k-series marked back velars (uvulars)
>> in pre-PIE (*q, *G, *Gh). There *is* a connection with
>> vowel quality, as follows:
>>
>> **-ká- > *-k^é-
>> **-kí- > *-k^é-
>> **-kú- > *-kWé-
>>
>> **-qá- > *-ká-
>> **-qí- > *-ké-
>> **-qú- > *-kWá-
>>
>> So after velars/uvulars, it's _almost_ possible to
>> reconstruct the original vowel quality, which is impossible
>> after other consonants. For instance, *t:
>>
>> **-tá- > *-té-
>> **-tí- > *-té-
>> **-tú- > *-té-
>>
>> (but when *t follows:
>>
>> **-át- > *-ét-
>> **-ít- > *-ét-
>> **-út- > *-és-
>> )
>>
>
>
>You propose that the plain *k-series are derived from pre-PIE
>uvulars *q etc. I believe they occur only in loanwords. Can you
>propose a way to decide which alternative is true?