Re: [tied] Re: Unusual Phonolgy

What I am representing as /¿/ is Arabic ¿ayin. I perceive it as a voiced pharyngeal stop similar to /?/, the glottal (laryngeal) stop. The raspy release sounds a bit like a fricative.

Palatalization of this sound would defeat even an Arab's best efforts, I think, since it is not made with the tongue at all.

Patrick

----- Original Message -----

From: etherman23

To: cybalist@yahoogroups.com

Sent: Wednesday, April 20, 2005 10:34 PM

Subject: [tied] Re: Unusual Phonolgy

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Patrick Ryan" <proto-language@......>
wrote:
> I have run into a correspondence between two languages (I think) that
puzzles me greatly.
>
> In one language, /¿/ (pharyngeal stop) seems to be corresponding
> to "cognates" _written_ z in another.

Sure that's not a voiced pharyngeal fricative? I only ask because the
IPA chart shows no such animal (but the spot for it is not blacked out
either).

> Presumably, z was /ts/ though it may have been pronounced as /z/
> (also possibly /ts/ or even /dz/).

If it's /ts/ could it be some sort of palatalization of the stop?
Perhaps the stop became a fricative then "fronted" to /z/?

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