From: elmeras2000
Message: 36509
Date: 2005-02-27
> > If the PIE perfect was also changing its functional restrictionsso
> > as to allow use as past tense there would be a simple inheritednot the
> > basis for the past of the hi-conjugation
>
> I think the PIE perfect relates to the present of the -hi verbs,
> past.Is there any basis for this verdict? Do Sanskrit -a, Gk. -a resemble