Re: [tied] Stative Verbs, or Perfect Tense

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "P&G" <G&P@...> wrote:

> > If the PIE perfect was also changing its functional restrictions

so

> > as to allow use as past tense there would be a simple inherited
> > basis for the past of the hi-conjugation
>
> I think the PIE perfect relates to the present of the -hi verbs,

not the

> past.

Is there any basis for this verdict? Do Sanskrit -a, Gk. -a resemble
Hitt. prs. -hi (older -he) more than they do Luvian prt. -ha? Do
Skt. -tha, Gk. -tha resemble Hitt. prs. -ti (older -te) better than
they do Hitt. prt. -ta? On what basis did you make up your mind?

Jens