Re: [tied] Stative Verbs, or Perfect Tense

From: elmeras2000
Message: 36509
Date: 2005-02-27

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "P&G" <G&P@...> wrote:
> > If the PIE perfect was also changing its functional restrictions
so
> > as to allow use as past tense there would be a simple inherited
> > basis for the past of the hi-conjugation
>
> I think the PIE perfect relates to the present of the -hi verbs,
not the
> past.

Is there any basis for this verdict? Do Sanskrit -a, Gk. -a resemble
Hitt. prs. -hi (older -he) more than they do Luvian prt. -ha? Do
Skt. -tha, Gk. -tha resemble Hitt. prs. -ti (older -te) better than
they do Hitt. prt. -ta? On what basis did you make up your mind?

Jens