Aorist and perfect of derivative verbs

Hello, cybalist friends. This is my first posting to this group,and
I am barely an amateur in regard to Indo-European philology, so
please excuse (and correct if necessary) any incorrect terminology.
I hope that I make myself clear.
My question is, how were the perfect and aorist formed in Indo-
European verbs that were not part of the thematic or athematic
declensions, i.e. duratives with -e:-, causatives with -eje/o-, and
derivative verbs (denominatives and others) with -a:-? Was there a
regular formation for these in Proto-Indo-European, whether at an
early stage or in later stages? My chief sources for information
about IE grammar, Andrew Sihler's "New Comparative Grammar of Greek
and Latin", Robert Beekes' "Comparative Indo-European Linguistics: An
Introduction", and Whitney's "Sanskrit Grammar", do not provide
complete information in this area. A Proto-Indo-European perfect and
aorist seem to be lacking for these verbs (although I suspect Greek
had an aorist with -s- for these verbs, and perhaps a perfect with -k-
? I know Sanskrit had a reduplicated aorist for the causative verbs,
but no perfect).
If you cannot describe in plain text how these tenses were formed,
perhaps you can direct me to a publication that addresses this
subject.

Sincerely,

Andrew Jarrette
Ottawa, Canada