From: Rob
Message: 36047
Date: 2005-01-26
> Well, stress retraction is expected if there is a full (non-high)How is "stress retraction [to be] expected if there is a full (non-
> vowel in the first syllable, as in *bHráh2t(o)r-. The same should
> have happened in *máh2t(o)r- as opposed to *ph2tér- and *dHugh2tér-
> . On the other hand, analogical levelling between 'father'
> and 'mother' (not extending to 'brother') would have been a
> natural process, so the end-stress of Indic and pre-Vernerian
> Germanic may be secondary, and the initial stress of Greek
> phonologically regular.
> But why is there a full vowel in the 'mother' and 'brother' in thephonotactics, and the proportional equation *(p)a(p)pa- : *(m)a(m)ma-
> first place? *m.h2ter- and *bHr.h2ter- don't violate any PIE >
> :: ph2ter- : X would have produced *mh2ter-, wouldn't it? PerhapsIt seems to me that both *méxte:r and *bhréxte:r were recent
> some kind of contrastive reinforcement was employed here, in order
> to preserve the relationship between the Lallwort and its formal
> counterpart (*m.h2tér --> *máh2tor-). 'Brother' is harder to
> explain, since I don't think anything like *bHra- (with an initial
> cluster!) is likely to be an IE nursery word (no offence meant to
> modern Jamaicans). My feeling is that the word was once more
> slightly complex than it appears to be, and that some kind of
> compositional simplification occurred in it.