From: alex
Message: 35936
Date: 2005-01-15
>>since you use "ilae" , demonstrative feminine pl is in Rom. "alea"
>> is there any points to sustain this assumtion of "changing" ?
>
> Actually, I wasn't completely accurate: the analogy is after
> the demonstrative f./n. pl. illae(c). Partial analogy is
> already seen e.g. in Agnellus: "gaudia versae(!) sunt". In
> Northern Italy (le membre, le carre, le castelle) and
> Romania, this became the norm.
>
>
> =======================
> Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
> mcv@...