From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 35354
Date: 2004-12-06
>> >> 2) Hirt's law. A non-vocalic laryngeal in the firstThe fact that sometimes, Winter's law does cause retraction,
>> >> syllable attracts the stress. Raises the number of
>> >> barytones.
>> >>
>> >> [3) Winter's law. Causes acute tone, but does not (usually)
>> >> result in retraction of the stress, so must come after
>> >> Hirt's]
>> >
>> >Only if the prosodic trigger was the same in the two cases. Since
>> >that does not have to be so, nothing seems to be really known
>about
>> >that point. It will be an argument only to those who assume
>> >that "glottalization" had coalesced with laryngeals. How they can
>> >believe they know that is beyond me.
>>
>> I wasn't implying anything of the kind. I do observe that
>> both Winter's law and laryngeals result in acute prosody.
>> But that includes vocalized laryngeals that do *not* trigger
>> Hirt's law, so there is no basis even _without_ Winter's
>> law.
>
>Then what *did* you imply? What caused you to use the fact that
>Winter's law does not cause stress retraction to assign it to a
>later period? I can't follow your reasoning here.