Re: [tied] Slavic accentology: Hirt's law

On Sun, 05 Dec 2004 18:57:05 +0000, elmeras2000
<jer@...> wrote:

>--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...> wrote:
>> Speaking of móte:... The word is AP 1 in Lith. and AP a in
>> Slavic, but you cannot tell whether that is due to Hirt's
>> law or the word was barytonic to begin with. Latv. has
>> mâte, where the Brechton would point to *ma:té:~, were it
>> not that as far as I know, Hirt's law applied to Latvian as
>> well. So, does BS *ma:te:: go with Skt. ma:tá: or with Grk.
>> mé:te:r?
>
>I think it should be noted that Greek mé:te:r only has initial
>accent in the nominative and vocative - other than that it goes like
>paté:r. The initial accent of the nominative can credibly be
>credited to the vocative. Something very similar goes for thugáte:r,
>thúgater, thugatéra, thugatrós, thugatéri/-trí. Thus, Greek agrees
>quite well with the rest of the evidence available.

On the other hand, the absence of any traces of Ablaut
suggests a stative paradigm. The only one that fits is a
hysterodynamic long vowel stative. In my system:

*ma:xtárz => *máh2te:r/-o:r
*ma:xtárm => *máh2trm.
*ma:xtarás => *máh2tr.s

=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv@...