Re: [tied] Slavic accentology: Hirt's law

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...> wrote:

> Speaking of móte:... The word is AP 1 in Lith. and AP a in
> Slavic, but you cannot tell whether that is due to Hirt's
> law or the word was barytonic to begin with. Latv. has
> mâte, where the Brechton would point to *ma:té:~, were it
> not that as far as I know, Hirt's law applied to Latvian as
> well. So, does BS *ma:te:: go with Skt. ma:tá: or with Grk.
> mé:te:r?

I think it should be noted that Greek mé:te:r only has initial
accent in the nominative and vocative - other than that it goes like
paté:r. The initial accent of the nominative can credibly be
credited to the vocative. Something very similar goes for thugáte:r,
thúgater, thugatéra, thugatrós, thugatéri/-trí. Thus, Greek agrees
quite well with the rest of the evidence available.

Jens