alexandru_mg3 wrote:
>
> On the other hand talking about "contorsions" here, your logic
> regarding the "loan path" among Greek, Albanian, Bulgarian and
> Romanian regarding the same (very specific) dance is a
> very "contorted one".
>
>
> Only the Best,
> marius
the linguistic logic here should speak for variant supposed by Abdullah and
sustained by Piotr. In a such logic, questions as "why should one take that
word from an another" play no role, since they are irrelevant due the fact
words simply are loaned for various reasons. Thus why should the linguistic
logic in this case for a loan from Greek:
- we do have Greek word "khoros" which means "to dance"
- we do have the change of "kh" > "h" within Greek, thus the pronunciation
is "horos"
- the meaning of the word in Greek was "a place where to dance" and "the
whole dancers"
Why should speak the logic for a loan _via_ Bulgarian. I don't know exactly
but I suppose that:
- there is no diphtongation of "o" in "hor�", thus this should be an
argument, this is a late loan, later as the diphtongation of "o" to "oa"
under influence of "�".
- the change of the stress
Beside of this there is no other equivalence of "ho-" to "va-" in the ROm.
Alb. equivalencies, even if there are "o-" versus "va-" equivalencies.
What should speak against Greek "xor�s, xorevo" form the linguistic logic
here? Apparently that:
- the stress which in Rom. is on "o" (h�r�) and in Alb. too on "a" in
"v�ll�", thus different form Greek.
- Diodorus (2.47)wrote the Hyperboreans ( people north of Greece ) have had
the tradition to sing and to make such dances (kitarizein kai horeuin) and
Suida which means the olds have called the dance with songs "xoreia".
on these considerations there is the question, should be the Greek word of
not Greek origin? Well.. maybe Piotr and the people who know better about
Greek can tell us something here.
Alex