Re: [tied] IE d>Gk th (and reading for novices)

From: Joao
Message: 35133
Date: 2004-11-17

But Greek theos shows no digamma "w", in Mycenian it's spelled te-o. So it must be *tHeHos. (<*dHesos ?). Unless we propose a different way, through another IE language, where *deiwos > tHeHos would be possible. I wouldn't discard the non-IE hypothesis.
 
Joao SL 
----- Original Message -----
From: Khodadad Rezakhani
To: cybalist@yahoogroups.com
Sent: Wednesday, November 17, 2004 5:45 AM
Subject: Re: [tied] IE d>Gk th (and reading for novices)

As long as I know, the Sanskrit form deva-, as well as the latin deus, come from PIE *deiwos- from *dei- "to shine". I know that there seems to be a controversy about the Greek theos and whether it is really an IE word or if it is a borrowing from a local language (personally, I think the argument is futile). Anyway, the Greek form can be derived from *dhewes- with an aspirated 'd' to render the 'th'.
 
Anyone else?
 
Khodadad

Bromios King <bromiosking@...> wrote:
Thank you for your reply.
 
I was trying to equate Gk. "theos" and Skt. "deva", thinking Gk. may have dropped F from "deFos" and changed IE'd' to 'th'. If this has no grounding in substance, what is the best etymology of "theos"? I suppose it's from the Gk. root "the", IE "dhe"? I apologise for what must be elementary questions.
 
Also, I've read T. Hudson-Williams' "A Short Introduction to Comparative Grammar (Indo-European); what else is good reading material for novices in this area?
 
Regards,
John

Piotr Gasiorowski <gpiotr@...> wrote:
On 04-11-16 09:35, bromiosking wrote:

> Is there any evidence that IE 'd' can become Gk 'th'?

The short answer is "no". Have you got any particular words in mind?

Piotr


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Khodadad Rezakhani
khodadad@...
Quod capita tot sensus
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