Re: Re[2]: [tied] Re: The role of analogy, alliteration and sandhi

From: alex
Message: 34747
Date: 2004-10-17

petusek wrote:
>> Latin kept the "ku" and Greek acted as Albanian (later ?) where ke >
>> q (q in Albanian = kind of "t" since that is a palatal sound and it
>> is condiered that Latin/Romance "ke" yelded in Albanian "q")
>
> Oh, I didn't know that Albanian is a Romance language, what a news!
> :-)

who say that? I meant here the loans into Albanian from Latin/Romance. In
these languages why have an "ke" which is reflected in Albanian as "q" (
kind of "ti")

> Is it clear now? Or am I really misunderstanding the whole thing at
> the moment? Nothing is impossible :-).
>
> Petusek


Look, the suggestion I made was necesary for the centum group ( I know it is
obsolete to consider stil centum & satem but let us still keep it).
For the satem group we do know kW > k thus "W" was _anyway_ lost without or
with my idea of "w" becoming consonant.
For the centum group, it appears easier to consider loosing of the velar
after "W" became consonatic. Since the consonant we have in the centum grup
is "p" I considered the "W" became tghe consonant "p" here.

In fact, that should be clear. we have "kW" which is a let say, cluster.
this cluster _is_ reduced in satem languages to "k"
the same cluster is reduced somehow in centum languages and its result is
"p". somehow, it doesnt matter now how.

from these both statments is clear that the group "kW" got reduced. that is
the fact.
The result of the reduction is in satem group "k" in the centum group "p".

Where is the difference now between what we know and what I suggested? The
difference is the way. I took an easy way where I said the "kW" became "kp"
which was almost imposible to pronounce and that one got reduced to "k" or
"p". If there shouldnt have been any change of "W" we should have had until
today the "kW" in our languages. But it did happen something and the "kW"
got changed, loss, how ever. We know just the result of it. And this is "k"
and "p".

Now, for the germanic "f", why should one think of kW > xw > f? It appears
very simple to say that Pre Proto-Germanic have had too "p" as other centum
languages and it became regular "f".

I hope you understood now how I meant it.

Alex