Re: [tied] Latin Perfect (was Re: Reasons)

> I don't think tetuli needs analogy since both forms
> definitely have the same outcome.

I wasn't suggesting it did.

> Doesn't a form like fe-feik-e (or something
> similar) exist in Oscan or Umbrian,

Several reduplicated forms exist, eg Osc. fefacust = Latin fecerit.

>making late
> analogy with other verbs with perfect long e unlikely?

Why should any analogy be late? It could operate at a proto-Italic level.

Peter