From: tgpedersen
Message: 33876
Date: 2004-08-26
> On Thu, 26 Aug 2004 09:58:23 +0000, tgpedersenas
> <tgpedersen@...> wrote:
>
> >> My question still stands: where have you ever seen an
> >> asyllabic demonstrative? If the demonstrative is weakened
> >> to a definite article, it may occasionally become assylabic,
> >> but not if it remains as a demonstrative. Case in point is
> >> Slavic tU, which should have become asyllabic after the loss
> >> of the yers, but didn't (Russ. tot, Pol. ten, etc.).
> >>
> >
> >But we're talking about two different things.
> >As you probably know, Sturtevant thinks of the IE demonstratives
> >composed of sentence connective + enclitic pronoun (*so- + *-os ->Erh, I see.
> >*sos, *to- + *-om -> *tom etc).
>
> I didn't know that, but it strikes me as an utterly
> unhelpful proposal.
>
> >Now suppose those enclitic pronounsetc).
> >were also the source of case endings (noun + *-os, noun + *-om
> >In that case it might make sense with a rule that reduced the(noun
> >unstressed /o*/ of the case endings to /&/, and later to zero
> >+ -&s, noun + -&m), but *sos, *tom etc could never become +s&m,Yes, if we leave it at /o/. But we don't have to.
> >+t&m, since there's no way the /o/ could escape the stress.
>
> Only the case endings of the o-stems can be explained as
> deriving from thematic vowel + enclitic pronoun (*-os, *-om,
> *-osyo, etc.). For all the other nominal declensions, there
> is absolutely no reason to think so (just look at the
> genitive).
>
> At no point is an asyllabic demonstrative to beI find it difficult to argue against impersonal statements. But I'm
> reconstructed.
>