From: tgpedersen
Message: 33743
Date: 2004-08-10
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "petegray" <petegray@...> wrote:into
> > > Also, the meaning of the
> > > perfect is not so much completion as having an enduring effect.
> >
> > This is partly true of Greek, but are we right to read it back
> PIE?antipassive.
> > Even in Greek the "resultative perfect", showing the result of an
> action
> > continuing up to the present, is not found as early as Homer (see
> Szemerenyi
> > p293). We do find very early the perfect used for actions which
> continue
> > in their subject, which is closer to a stative, or an
> A largefits,
> > number of Homeric perfects indicate attitude or mood, and they
> describe the
> > subject, not the object (e.g.: is ablaze,is astir,is undone,
> has as afight
> > share, etc). Verbs which are transitive in later Greek are often
> > intransitive as perfects in Homer. (See Monro's Homeric Grammar,
> p31).
> >
> > The perfect in Skt is one of three past tenses which at times are
> not to be
> > distinguished, and when they are distinguished, even scholars
> over thethe
> > difference. In Latin the completion is a stronger element than
> > enduring effect. (Remember Cicero's one-word speech, "vixerunt",appears
> meaning
> > "their lives are over."; and Vergil's fuit Ilium = Troy is no
> more) In
> > Germanic it appears, in strong verbs, simply as the simple past.
> >
> > The meaning of the perfect in PIE is hard to establish. It
> to be aform
> > highly marked form of the verb, which may have connections in
> to theseem
> > middle, and connections in meaning to a stative. But it does
> toThat's odd. I was just speculating on whether there was connection
> > describe the subject, not the object.
> >
> > Peter
>
>
> Probably something similar also exists in Etruscan, if /zivas/
> = "life is over" (i.e. "he/her/they died"). A thorny topic.
> Probably some light could be shed on it by /...fler zivas.../
> found in Liber Linteus, less ambiguous than other attestation.
>