From: Jens Elmegaard Rasmussen
Message: 33728
Date: 2004-08-09
> On Sun, 08 Aug 2004 08:52:37 +0100, petegrayYou can't mean this in an objective sense. The Latin vowel reductions are
> <petegray@...> wrote:
>
> >>But illi:us and isti:us do _not_ follow the example of
> >>e:ius, cu:ius and hu:ius.
> >
> >That should be eyyus, cuyyus, huyyus. The first vowel is short, the
> >consonantal <i> is double. I rather think this supports the change -sy-
> >> -yy.
>
> Yes. I was citing the Classical Latin forms, where Vjj >
> V:j. The genitives illi:us and isti:us can also derive from
> *istijjus, *illijjus (< *is-tosyo, *olnosyo).
>
> I also asked about the reduction of unstressed /a/ vs. /o/
> in Latin. Is /a/ more resistent to reduction than /o/? I'm
> not confident about the soundlaws governing reduced vowels
> in Latin, but based on the reduction of fac- to fic-
> (afficio, etc.), I'd say there is no difference between /a/
> and /o/. So if *-osyo was reduced to *-ijjo/-i:o, *-asyo-
> should have done the same. Is that correct?