From: Exu Yangi
Message: 33428
Date: 2004-07-07
>From: "Richard Wordingham" <richard.wordingham@...>The simplest explanation seems to be tu-/ta- with development as in greek
>
>--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, mcv@... wrote:
> > enlil@... wrote:
>
> > >In fact, most pronouns show zero-grading.
> > > That's the norm it seems. This makes sense considering that they
>are typically
> > > lacking accent in a sentence
> >
> > It doesn't make any sense at all. Accented pronouns are typically
>accented, and there typically are _separate_ enclitic forms for use
>without accent. The nominative of personal pronouns in particular
>is *always* stressed, has no enclitic forms, and is used exclusively
>for emphasis in the sentence (PIE being a pro-drop language).
>
>And add the requirement that nominative and accusative be distinct.
>Personal pronouns with a rising tone have changed tone (to high)
>through lack of stress in Siamese, a pro-drop language with no case
>distinctions (unless you want to claim a very dubious genitive case
>in loan words and a dubious construct case in native words).
>
>Could this difference help explain the s/t- pattern in the
>inflection of *to?