> I only said
> there is reportedly no lexical use of vowel oppositions in Semitic.
> to me it means that
> the vowel system of the Semitic *lexicon* is zero,
Hebrew shows minimal lexical pairs, e.g.:
yo:m = day; ya:m = sea
(ayin)e:z = goat; (ayin)o:z = strength
?el = to ?e:l = god
etc
So I think the starting point for this discussion is misguided. Vowels are
used lexically (and morphologically) in at least one Semitic language.