>Hypothetical example: what is the "true vowel" of a Semitic root? The
>question is meaningless since Semitic ablauts.
But consider the stative verbs in Hebrew. (I assume they are Semitic-wide).
They are marked by different vocalism in the second syllable, having -a- in
the so-called "imperfect" instead of -o-, and showing -e- or -o- (or
sometimes -a-) in place of the usual -a- in non-stative verbs.
Therefore we'd have to say that Hebrew (Semitic?) is "ablauting" mostly, but
some verbs are marked by their vocalism - rather like PIE.
Peter