From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 32326
Date: 2004-04-27
>--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...> wrote:Something with *-ih2-, I guess.. The -ija:- (> e:) in the
>
>> It's in itself reasonable to think that -aí was changed to
>> -ai~ due to contraction (-ijaí > -jai~), as was the fem.
>> nom. sg. -ijá: > -e:~.
>
>I wonder how one would explain collectives in -ijà (vilkijà vs.
>vìlke:, perkú:nija) then?
>> After all, contractions are one ofWell, the jo- and ja:-stems behave differently. In the
>> the major sources of circumflex accentuation.
>
>But for adjectives you posited that contraction leads to circumflex
>under stress only. Why gerì vs. z^e~me: then? Analogy?
>> The problemDoesn't -è come from suffixed *-en?
>> is explaining why that didn't happen in the ins.sg. and
>> acc.pl. (of both genders).
>
>And in the historical L.sg. (Old Lith. -è, later replaced with -yjè).