From: Abdullah Konushevci
Message: 31621
Date: 2004-03-31
> On Tue, 30 Mar 2004, Abdullah Konushevci wrote:ending
>
> > --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "elmeras2000" <jer@...> wrote:
> > > --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, enlil@... wrote:
> > >
> >
> > > I accept the identification of the last part of the gen.sg.
> > *-added to
> > > o-syo with the relative pronoun, only I think it has been
> > awould
> > > genitive form, not a nominative. The old underlying syntax
> > beonly have
> > > just as in Albanian and the history of Persian.
> >
> > > Jens
> > ************
> > Dear Jens,
> > Would you, please, be so kind to further explain it through all
> > paradigm?
>
> Sure, but that's too easy, for the IE form is not inflected. We
> the *idea' that, say, *wiH1rósyo *póde 'the man's two-feet' or*tésyo
> *póde 'his two-feet' in origin consists of a genitive made from astem +
> zero-grade of /-os/, i.e. *té-s (and analogically *wiH1ró-s with -o- from
> other parts of the paradim), plus an uninflected form of therelative
> pronoun *yó-s 'who, which'. The original form would have hadinflection in
> concord with the possessum, in this case an animate nom.-acc. dualbeen 'the
> *yó:(w), and the intended meaning of *té-s-yo: pód-e would have
> two feet which (are) his'. That's the form the proto-izafetconstructions
> of Old Iranian have.************
>
> Jens