[tied] Re: Syncope

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, enlil@... wrote:

> Jens and I, at each other's throats again:
> >> Certainly a theory is not hard evidence. I say that
> >> *pelh- did not derive from *plh-. Prove me wrong.
> >
> > Schwebeablaut quite generally works that way: [...]
> > In the case of *pleH1-, Piotr has also insisted that
> > the old form has "full-grade two", using the
> > comparative *pleH1-yos- of Gk. pleío:n and Skt.
> > prá:yas- as particularly impressive points de repère.
>
> I didn't see any conclusive proof against my view.

It is fatal to the theory you represent if the vowel of the
variant "*pelH1-" is not original because you need that vowel to be
present before the ablaut caused zero-grade. Well, the scenario
presented by Anttila is entirely possible. In fact it is also likely
in that it produces order where earlier there was none.

Jens