From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 31059
Date: 2004-02-14
>--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...> wrote:Well, I also wanted to add that the phenomenon in Portuguese is not limited
>> On Sat, 14 Feb 2004 12:31:27 +0000, tgpedersen <tgpedersen@...>
>> wrote:
>>
>> >1) Portuguese has /-us^/ for the spelling <-os>.
>>
>> Which Portuguese? Not Galician/Northern Portuguese or Brazilian
>Portuguese
>> (except Carioca).
>
>Let me clarify: some Portuguese. Happy now?
>>And how is a modern (post 17th c.) PortugueseLet's assume the subjugated popular deep in Portugal had been pronouncing
>> development relevant to medieval spelling?
>>
>
>And you have ironclad evidence that it didn't occur before that?
>Lately I've come across many passages in linguistic literature in
>which the author claims that the late appearance of some feature is
>caused by its having to work its way up from the subjugated popular
>deep. What am I to make of that?
>> >I think it would be strange for French final /s/'s to disappear/s/ > /h/, no need for /s^/.
>> >abruptly.
>>
>> It didn't. It disappeared first before a voiced consonant (by way
>of s > z
>> > D > 0), then (11th. c) before voiceless consonants (by way
>of /h/),
>> finally (13th. c.) in final position,
>
>Daintily steppping over the /s^/-puddle.
>>except in liaison, where it survivesIt does in Portuguese.
>> until today (as /z/, of course, not as /z^/).
>
>Oh! The final blow. But I don't think /s/ > /s^/ would force /z/
>> /z^/.