From: m_iacomi
Message: 31054
Date: 2004-02-14
> And you have ironclad evidence that it didn't occur before that?Nothing. Final -s in "some" Portuguese is pronounced /s^/ with
> Lately I've come across many passages in linguistic literature in
> which the author claims that the late appearance of some feature is
> caused by its having to work its way up from the subjugated popular
> deep. What am I to make of that?
>>> 2) The usual "path of disappearance" for /s/ is > /s^/ > /h/ >Nope. You should substantiate your claim and that "usual" word.
>>> zero.
>>
>> I don't think so.
>
> I do. Nyah, nyah, nyah (that oughta take care of _that_ argument).
>> It didn't. It disappeared first before a voiced consonant (by wayWhich was noted by noone. The spelling <cheva(u)x> did not stand for
>> of s > z > D > 0), then (11th. c) before voiceless consonants (by
>> way of /h/), finally (13th. c.) in final position,
>
> Daintily steppping over the /s^/-puddle.
>> except in liaison, where it survivesOf course not. But were the <x> pronounced [s^], the regular
>> until today (as /z/, of course, not as /z^/).
>
> Oh! The final blow. But I don't think /s/ > /s^/ would force /z/
> > /z^/.