From: Jim Rader
Message: 31022
Date: 2004-02-13
>
> No of course not. -us was not pronounced -us^, either in France or
> Spain, and there were no endings in -us in Spain, unlike in France
> (-ls > -us), so the Spanish, not French, use of <x> to stand for /s^/
> can only be explained by the fact that Latin /ks/ developed to /js^/
> in Spain (coxa, cuixa), and not in France, where it developed to /js/
> (cuisse, cueissa).
>
> Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
> mcv@...