The palatal sham :) (Re: [tied] Re: Albanian (1))

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Brent J. Ermlick" <brent3@...>
wrote:

> Does this evidence of voicedness [of*H3 - JER] affect the

glottalic hypothesis

> or would the phenomena also be explicable with voicedness as

redefined

> in the various glottalic proposals?

I suppose it would affect it very little, for the actual phonetic
change must be pre-Proto-Indo-European anyway, since PIE shows the
results.

Jens