--- In
cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "elmeras2000" <jer@...> wrote:
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...> wrote:
> > Furthermore, I have some doubts about the plausability of a
system
> that has
> > palatalization of the velar stops only.
>
> Hey, there are certainly some Scandinavian languages that
palatalize
> velars and nothing else.
>
On the question of palatal vs palatalised (now I can't find the
thread) I think palatalised must mean something that can be de-
palatalised (unlike palatal), it must have a rubber band attached;
which is: participation in a paradigm in which that sound (velar)
alternates between palatalised and non-palatal, eg Swedish <ge> (<
<giva>) /je/ : <gav> /gav/, in Danish depalatalised <give> /gi/ :
<gav> /ga/ 'give':'gave'. In other words, I think de-palatalisation
is caused by regularisation and nothing else.
Torsten (not Holger)