Re: Latin pinso etc.

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "alex" <alxmoeller@...> wrote:

> alex wrote:

> I guess I have to revide some thing here Piotr.I thought there is

no more

> alteration of "z" in a palatal medium but it seems I was wrong. It

seems it

> iz, at least when "z" is followed by unstressed "half-vowel" "i",

the one

> very short "i" which makes the plural in rom.
> The example which came in my mind was the word "treaz", the

adjectiv.

> Thinking about this word, I seen there are several words which

shows the

> same regular transformation of "z" > "j" consonantal "j" here,

like in

> French "jardine"
> Thus sg= "z", pl = "ji"
> treaz - treji
> breaz - breji
>
> It ought to observe that the next "i" play no acction of "z" if

the "i" is

> stressed. Here we see it in derivative of "treaz" as the

substantiv "trezie"

An interesting set. What's the feminine plural - _treze_, _breze_?
I don't have smoothing by final -i in my rules, but it's not needed
for words of Latin origin. Are we into the region of arbitrary
application of rules? We have the example _mare_ 'sea',
_mãri_ 'seas', but _gras_ 'fat m.s.' _gra$i_ (not *grã$i) 'fat
m.pl.'. (And only optional rules can yield _gras_ from Classical
Latin _crassus_ - see the thread including
http://groups.yahoo.com/group/cybalist/message/29620 .)

Actually, there may be a minor rule here - wild card searches on ?as
and ??as yielded *no* examples of the pattern -as, -ã$i, but several
counterexamples. I was searching DEx on-line at
http://dexonline.ro/ .

Richard.