Re: [tied] Re: Weeping (was: Latin pinso etc.)

m_iacomi wrote:

> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "alex" wrote:
>
>> Richard Wordingham wrote:
> [...]
>
>>> Rom. inf Latin 1s
> [...]
>>> rade ra:do:
>>
>> I doubt that "rade" is an inherited verb..
>
> So, in your hypercompetent opinion, what would be the normal
> result of Latin "ra:dere" in Romanian if inherited?

I should have expected here "a rãdea" as pan-romanian form not just as
regional form.
Or is "a rade" a hyperrcorection?

>
>> It seems is a loan and I compare with the verb "a rãzui" but
>> this one appears to be derivative from "raz" (crowbar, blade,
>> etc) , cf DEX < SerboCroatin "raz"
>
> Why not compare with "ridere" > "râde"?!

For phonologicaly issue you can compare all 3. For semantical issues,
one can compare just "a rade" with "a rãzui"
For my taste, "râ-" ist most ancient, "rã-" newer, "ra-"= most new.

>
>> Question: how does it happen that Latin infinitive in /o:/ has
>> counterparts in /-ea/ in Rom? Is there any another explanation
>> beside some analogy?
>
> Richard already spared me an answer to that. You may consider
> yourself lucky.

As usual, you like to practice a kind of sport. I don't call it on its
name.

>
> Marius Iacomi

Alex