[tied] Re: Weeping (was: Latin pinso etc.)

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "alex" wrote:

> Richard Wordingham wrote:

[...]

>> Rom. inf Latin 1s

[...]

>> rade ra:do:
>
> I doubt that "rade" is an inherited verb..

So, in your hypercompetent opinion, what would be the normal
result of Latin "ra:dere" in Romanian if inherited?

> It seems is a loan and I compare with the verb "a rãzui" but
> this one appears to be derivative from "raz" (crowbar, blade,
> etc) , cf DEX < SerboCroatin "raz"

Why not compare with "ridere" > "râde"?!

> Question: how does it happen that Latin infinitive in /o:/ has
> counterparts in /-ea/ in Rom? Is there any another explanation
> beside some analogy?

Richard already spared me an answer to that. You may consider
yourself lucky.

Marius Iacomi