From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 29457
Date: 2004-01-12
>akis is an i-stem in Lithuanian, so of course it has *-iH. But Lith. has
>----- Original Message -----
>From: "Miguel Carrasquer" <mcv@...>
>To: <cybalist@yahoogroups.com>
>Sent: Monday, January 12, 2004 1:54 AM
>Subject: Re: [tied] Re: PIE's closest relatives/SIBUN
>
>
>> Not at all. Greek <osse> cannot come from *okWih1: *-ih1 gives Greek -i:,
>> not -ye. The thought that the Greek dual ending -e comes from *&1 is
>> rendered impossible by the fact that Lithuanian and indirectly Old Irish
>> also point to *-e. *&1 cannot give -e in Lithuanian. The ending
>> underlying the Greek, Lithuanian and Old Irish forms must therefore be
>*-e,
>> or perhaps *-ye, and has no laryngeal.
>
>Lithuanian has aki` with the acute intonation pointing to *-iH.
>*h3ekWih1 is rendered in Greek as *h3ekWyh1 (*-i- is not syllabicThat cannot happen.
>and laryngeal is therefore vocalized).