From: tgpedersen
Message: 29297
Date: 2004-01-09
> 08-01-04 21:09, Brian M. Scott wrote (trying to read Torsten'smind):
>didn't
> > * A language with a single, uniform plural formation is
> > fitter than one with multiple plural formations.
>
> > * If one of two competing varieties has some simple
> > distinguishing characteristic (e.g., uniform plural in
> > <-es>), speakers of the other will bend over backwards
> > to avoid that characteristic (e.g., by maintaining a
> > variety of plural formations).
>
> I see. This explains why the speakers of Middle Estuary English
> go very far to generalise <-en> in opposition to <-es>. They wouldhave
> made their system of plurals too simple in that way. But why didthey
> eventually generalise <-es>? Did they change their minds aboutwanting
> to be unlike Northerners? If you are right about Torsten'sunderlying
> claims, their behaviour was irrational. Any sane dialect would haveYes, but the problem is that this is not a symmetric relationship.
> switched to <-en>, optimising both the contrast with the competing
> variety AND its own fitness ;-).
>