From: tgpedersen
Message: 29231
Date: 2004-01-08
>I think the subject-verb inversion after sentence-initial non-subject
> Michael:
> >I thought someone said it was an Afro-Asiatic, but not Semitic,
> >substrate in Northern Europe that were dealing with here?
>
> I'm open to the Berber idea because I don't see any straight
> answers on the problem so far, but why can't it be Semitic?
> If I understand a major reason why AA (as a whole) is suspected
> to be at the heart of the Atlantiker influence is the adoption
> of verb-initial sentence patterns, which aren't as common but
> are typical in the AfroAsiatic languages overall.
>