From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 29167
Date: 2004-01-06
>No, just the standard way Latin behaves.
>Miguel:
>>*dhéh1s-nom -> fíísnam
>>*dh&1s-nóm -> fasnom -> fa:num
>
>Seems like a cheap ploy to explain away an aberrant form.
>While *h1 might explain Latin -a-, what explains the mysteryWhat you didn't miss earlier in nisdos > ni:dus.
>disappearance of this unattested "s"? What exactly is the
>process? What am I missing?
>Shouldn't it be rhotacized likeNo. /s/ isn't intervocalic.
>in /fe:riae/?