From: Daniel Baum
Message: 28717
Date: 2003-12-23
David:According to Colin P. Masica in _The Indo-Aryan Languages_ (Cambridge Language Surveys, 1991), Vedic "was based apparently on a far western dialect, perhaps influenced by Iranian". That's as opposed to Sanskrit, which he says was based on a midland dialect. If that's indeed the case, and if at least some of the Prakrits were derived from the same source as Vedic, then that could bear out your hypothesis. What do you think?Andy Howey
wtsdv <liberty@...> wrote:--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Richard Wordingham"
<richard.wordingham@...> wrote:
>
> Where does the Prakrit (incl. Pali) word _cha_ 'six' come from?
> I don't see how to relate it to Sankrit SaS- beyond a vague
> similarity.
Isn't it supposed to come from a variant beginning with
*k or *kW, as seen in Avestan xva or Ossetic æxsæz?
Although I don't remember if Old Indo-Aryan kS- resulted
in Prakrit ch- or not. Do you know?
David
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