I came across this posting:
http://www.hum.gu.se/arkiv/ONN/2000/I/msg00628.html
Note how similar the Old Danish sentence is to the Old Norse version,
apart from the fact that the former has dropped case inflecion; and
they are separated by only 200-300 years. It makes one wonder if both
versions had existed at the same time as sociolects, one "plain" or
creolised, and one bookish; in the Flensburg case the plain sociolect
would have been chosen due to the proximity to Low German speakers
(the Jyske Lov (also Flensburg, 1241) was later translated into Low
German). And perhaps the creole versions goes all the way back to the
Germanic Landnahme 2000 years ago in Jutland and in the
Nordwestblock? Otherwise how does one explain that the Slavic
languages (except Bulgarian and Macedonian) don't have similar
creolised socio-/dia-lects?
Torsten