Re: [tied] Re: to kill

m_iacomi wrote:

> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "altamix" wrote:
>
>>> There is nothing in Latin with /g/. I wrote:
>>> <And no, it is not a new word since it appears in ancient texts
>>> (even with analogical forms in some of them: "ucigu")>
>>> ^^^^^^^^^^
>>> The word "analogical" is to be taken as opposed to "etymological":
>>> there is no etymological reason for the presence of the /g/, the
>>> reason is analogy with other verbal forms having it.
>>
>> analogy with what ? which a verb should be in your eyes the one who
>> made the analogy here?
>
> Verbs having the p.p. in -s, like "strânge", "plânge", "mulge",
> "curge", "frige" etc. just like "ucide" with p.p. "ucis". The I-st
> person of many verbs with p.p. in -s ends in -g -> by analogy one
> reconstructs also "ucig" instead of "ucid" (it's even simpler to
> articulate, so that made happy lazy people -- engine core for any
> kind of evolution including language).
>
> Marius Iacomi

there is no *strinde, *plande, *mulde, *curde, *fride which will appear
to be analogical with "ucide"
Ucide does not end in "g" but in "d".
I guess Miguel and Piotr will find your argumentation as a very good
argumentation for the analogy. Me, well, I don't say my opinion since I
don't know what an argumentation is. Maybe later if ever.

Alex