--- In
cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Bogdan Giusca " wrote:
> Just wondering. What is the link between "Omorît" (killed) and
> "mort" (dead man) ? Their pronounciation is quite similar.
Not "quite similar"; "vaguely similar" fits better: [omor1t] with
stress on /1/ and [mórt].
There is no immediate link between the p.p. of a Slavic loan verb
and inherited Latin "mortuu(m)" > "mort". One has to dig far in the
past to find the common root: *mer- (4) `to die` (Pokorny #1295).
Cheers,
Marius Iacomi