From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 28079
Date: 2003-12-07
>Miguel Carrasquer wrote:Not necessarily. Once the population had become Romanized, they didn't
>> On Sun, 07 Dec 2003 00:51:48 +0000, alexandru_mg3
>> <alexandru_mg3@...> wrote:
>>
>>> b) Could we imagine that the Dacian had /H/ ?...I don't think so.
>>> Despite some plant names at Dioskurides (in fact I found only
>>> one : Hormia ) there is no other dacian toponym that contains /H/.
>>> Also romanian loans [sic] from latin don't have /H/ either
>>
>> Latin had no /h/ (it lost it very early on). Therefore, no native
>> Romanian words have /h/, and no substrate /h/'s would have survived
>> among a Romanized population.
>>
>
>which is the logic here Miguel? I see here 2 steps:
>
>1)Latin lost "h" very early thus every Latin word could not have any "h"
>because the "romanised" population _could not know_ where once in Latin
>was an "h".
>
>2) there are substratual words which have had "h" and the "h" was
>preserved.
>I gues they are compatible at all. The proof is in the fact that todayThe Slavic "h" is actually a velar fricative /x/, a "stronger" sound than
>Rom. has "h" and that they _keept_ the Slavic "h" as well, not drooping
>it just because "they are romanised population".