Re: Non-Indo-European in Germanic

Torsten, what is your opinion as to the origin of the 28% non-Indo-
European in Germanic? What would a more plausible theory than the
Nordwestblock be? And if the Nordwestblock area is not non-Indo-
European, then what else can it be shown to be? Can it be shown that
it was more likely to have been Germanic or Celtic? In Times
Historical Atlas the Nordwestblock was suggested to be Indo-European
but not Celtic or Germanic.

-Michael

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "tgpedersen" <tgpedersen@...> wrote:
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "studey22" <lookwhoscross-
> eyednow@...> wrote:
> > Considering the percentage of non-Indo-European in Germanic,
> what
> > is the consensus of the theory of either a non-Indo-European or
non-
> > Celtic and non-Germanic language squeezed between the latter two
> > between the Aller Somme rivers and based on place names?
> >
>
> For that sentence to work, one would have to assume that the 28%
non-
> IndoEuropean words in Germanic were taken from the hypothetical
> Nordwestblock language. There are several other possibilities.
> Obviously it must have been a language by the sea, since 'sea'
> and 'ship' are part of it. Udolph doesn't believe in a
Nordwestblock
> language, but thinks that the areas were originally Germanic. That
> assumption means trouble for the idea that the Jastorf (ca 600 BCE -

> 1 BCE) culture was Germanic speaking, since Jastorf doesn't cover
the
> supposed Nordwestblock area.
>
> Torsten