From: tgpedersen
Message: 27823
Date: 2003-11-29
> On Fri, 28 Nov 2003 12:42:07 +0000, tgpedersen <tgpedersen@...>wrote:
> wrote:
>
> >--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...>
> >> On Thu, 27 Nov 2003 12:50:37 +0100 (MET), Harald Hammarstromwhich
> >> <haha2581@...> wrote:
> >>
> >> >Some more details: The numeral is frequently written as 7-an
> >couldback
> >> >point to a form PAnatolian *siptan- which could however not to
> >> >to PIE *septm. (because PIE *-m. securely gives Hitt. -unPortuguese:
> >so /s^ipta-/
> >> >could not be direct descendant either).
> >>
> >> Perhaps *septm. became *septn. (as in Gothic sibun, or Lith.
> >septynì). The
> >> regular outcome of *septn.' is *s^iptán.
> >>
> >>
> >
> >I think I said it before: PIE accusative looks positively
> >sg. -m, pl. -ns. How can we be sure that what is reconstructed ascontraction,
> >PIE -m isn't -n? The -m in Latin acc. -Vm disappears in
> >as if was only a mark of the nasalisation of the previous vowel,and
> >Sanskrit acc. -m is supposedly weak too.from -n.
>
> Latin, for instance, distinguishes -m. (-em, as in the accusative)
> (-en, as in the -mn.-neuters, no:men, etc.).To which one might argue that whoever designed Latin orthography
> The acc.pl. has to be reconstructed as *-m.s on the basis ofHittite acc.pl
> -us (not *-as, what *-n.s would have given).I'm out of my depth here.
>