> Verbal suffix of Slavic origin "-ui" does not "romanize" any word,
>but some classes of: some Slavic verbs in "-(ov)ati", Hungarian
>verbs in "-ni" (maybe through a supposed Slavic intermediate).
All Hung. verbs get this ending "-ni." It makes 'em take on quasi
infinitive functions. However, in dictionaries and Hung. grammar
books, verbs aren't put with this suffix, but in a form that we'd
call indicative, present tense, 3rd person, singular.
BTW, Rum. ending for verby of the IVth kind (-ire): there is a
variant (nowadays popular/colloquial/regional only) of <a jurà,
juramânt>: <a juruí: eu jurui(esc), tu jurui(eSti), el/ea juru(i)e(Ste)
[here, until April 1954 no need for this "legatto-"i]; noi juruím,
voi juruítzi, ei/ele juru(i)e(sc) [the same comment for -i-]>; and
<juruíntzã>.
I can't explain why the native-speaker's preference for the -u-
before the -i & -ire in numerous cases. At least in theory I don't
see why there couldn't exist a third variant, without the -u-:
*a juri (jur(esc or -ãsc), juri, jurãSte, jurãm, juratzi, jurãsc).
We only can see and accept what's been there in reality: native
speakers have opted for verbs of the Ith and IVth kind, i.e.,
<jur+are> & <jur+u+ire>.
The former generates a noun this way <jur-> + <(-a-)+(-mânt)>,
and the latter this way, <jur->+<-u->+<intzã> (Whereby -(V)mânt
correponds to Engl. -(V)ment, and -intzã to Engl. -(V)nce).
> Romanian "-ui" is a two-syllable suffix with stress on i (/-u-í/).
Definitely! (No diphtong here.)
> Marius Iacomi
George
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