[tied] Re: Alb. suffix "-oj"

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "alex" wrote:

> I find very interesting the fact that Rom. make _the same thing_
> with Slavic, Hungarian, etc loans.
> ( later as latin inherited/loans).

In any language a productive suffix does the same. There is nothing
special about Romanian.

> For this , to "romanise" the verbs there is the sufix "-ui",

Verbal suffix of Slavic origin "-ui" does not "romanize" any word,
but some classes of: some Slavic verbs in "-(ov)ati", Hungarian
verbs in "-ni" (maybe through a supposed Slavic intermediate). It
makes verbs from some inherited Latin or loan nouns, as expected.
This verbal ending is present also in some neological formations as
"instrui", "intui" taken as such from French, Italian or Latin.

> ecxactly how Albania does with Latin verby with suffix "-oj".

So?!

> Strange coincidence, isn't it?

There is no coincidence at all.

> Strange phoneticall,

Romanian "-ui" is a two-syllable suffix with stress on i (/-u-í/).
Albanian "-oj" is a diphthong eventually stressed on the vowel
(/-óy/).
They do not have the same phonemes nor the same stress pattern.
There is no similarity.

> strange on the time line after all today known linguistic facts.

Strange for Alex ignoring what a productive suffix does in any
language.

Marius Iacomi